So what's the root of your argument?
My argument is that the arguments made by the people against copying don't work.
That when you download the latest game or movie release you're not stealing it?
Yes, copying isn't stealing.
You can sugar coat it all you want, but saying "I'm not stealing, I'm copying it on my own terms" just doesn't work.
Elaborate.
1. What's your argument to justify the way in which middlemen profit from other people's work?
2. What's your argument to validate the idea that making a copy of information is somehow stealing?
I understand what you're saying about removing their copy of the software and taking it yourself. Try thinking about it this way:
There is a company called XYZ which has an infinite amount of cd's. If you take one of them they don't have any less than they started with, but they suddenly are missing the money they would have earned from the sale of that disk.
No they're not. They're only missing money if they had it in their posession to begin with, and then I took it from them.
Also, who says that people would have payed for it if they could not copy it?
I would posit that at the very least, people would not pay as much as the glorified middlemen charge for it if they had the option to have their input into the terms and conditions.
But then, I wouldn't give
any money to the glorified middlemen if I had the option. I'd rather it go to the people who actually had a part in the creation of information -
for their time and effort, mind you; not for the information itself.
Unfortunately the legal system doesn't allow that. So what are our options?
It does not matter that they have not in effect 'lost' any cd's, you still have it and it used to be theirs. You did not purchase it from them, therefore you must have stolen it.
Your analogy is still flawed in that you're attempting to compare it to a tangible, physical item that can be physically removed from somebody's posession.
Copying information is not the same as removing something from somebody's posession, no matter how you look at it.
The same principal applies to software. They have infinite copies of the software, so when you produce a copy they don't lose it. However you've still suddenly got a copy of the software that used to be theirs
'used to be theirs' doesn't make sense. 'used to' implies past tense; in the context that they no-longer have the information in question, which simply isn't true.
I'd like to posit my own example of copying information:
A person tells a joke to somebody. That other person remembers the joke.
What's actually happened here? You had one person storing information, and then you suddenly have two people storing the same information.
Is the original person somehow losing something because another person now stores the same information?